![]() ![]() So my question is: Were there or is there any semantic difference between such pairs of words, or is it just a spelling idiosyncrasy? If there were such differences, do any persist to the present day?Īddendum: These aren't the only such pairs there are others, I distinctly remember seeing many in lots of Shakespeare's plays. I don't remember where exactly I got these impressions from, and I don't know if they are correct. Similarly, I've always thought that learned is, strictly speaking, only acceptable as the past tense of the verb to learn, and that if one wanted to refer to the adjective form meaning "educated", as in learned scholar, it would properly be spelt as learnèd. One thing I've always thought is that, strictly interpreted, beloved can really only be used as an adjective if one wants to refer to the noun, as in my beloved, it should properly spelt as belovèd. Where there's an accent grave on the 'e' of the last syllable of one of each pair of word. When I first read Romeo and Juliet in high school, I remember being intrigued by pairs of words such as, ![]()
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